I have an interesting thought. The 14th amendment was passed in 1868, granting citizenship to people born or naturalized within the United States, as well as protecting the right to vote to male citizens. In 1920, the 19th Amendment was passed, saying that the right to vote shall not be denied based on account of sex (gender).
Now, if the 14th Amendment extended citizenship to all people born or naturalized within the United States, and voting is a right extended to citizens of the United States, why the need for the 19th Amendment in the first place?
Think of it this way. Women were not considered citizens of the United States when this country was first founded. All rights extended exclusively to males owning property, land etc., and later to just white males. The 14th amendment comes along and demolishes the race barrier for citizenship and voting.
Here's my main question: When were women granted citizenship during this process?
The 19th Amendment clearly states that the right of voting shall not be denied based on account of sex (gender), but says nothing about extending citizenship to women at all. It can be argued that citizenship was granted to women in the 14th Amendment, but the Supreme Court's decisions on the 14th Amendment and other cases of this matter have nothing to do with women's citizenship.
Women's organizations wanted the right to vote, and they were granted this thanks to the 19th Amendment. However, these same organizations didn't lobby for citizenship in the United States.
Envision the presidential election of 2012. Let's say a woman does win the nomination for their party, and goes on to the primary. Is she legally allowed to run for president?